by yitzle@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
(Yitzle)
May 6, 2008 at 10:43 AM
On Tue, May 6, 2008 at 9:49 AM, Robert Hicks <sigzero@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> Is there anything wrong with:
>
> if ( defined $one && defined $two && $one eq $two ) {
> #### do something
> }
No. Its fine.
You might be interested in "Operator Precedence and Associativity" [1]
[1]
http://perldoc.perl.org/perlop.html#Operator-Precedence-and-Associativity
