Re: Euler problem #48

by Thomas Pornin <pornin@[EMAIL PROTECTED] > May 8, 2008 at 02:18 PM

According to Anton Ertl <anton@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>:
> Wasn't there a way to do integer division (and consequently compute
> the modulus) by multiplication with the inverse?

There is an article by Granlund and Montgomery on that subject:
"Division By Invariant Integers using Multiplication". It can be
found there:

   http://citeseer.ist.psu.edu/granlund94division.html


	--Thomas Pornin

10 Posts in Topic:

Euler problem #48

mhx@[EMAIL PROTECTED] (M

2008-05-07 22:55:35

Re: Euler problem #48

Bernd Paysan <bernd.pa

2008-05-08 11:22:15

Re: Euler problem #48

anton@[EMAIL PROTECTED]

2008-05-08 10:28:32

Re: Euler problem #48

Thomas Pornin <pornin@